Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin
• B. Administer the injection in the client's thigh
• C. Use an intradermal needle for the injection
• D. Avoid touching the site after injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

3. A patient is being educated about a clear liquid diet. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?

• A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
• B. Ginger ale
• C. Black coffee
• D. Orange sherbet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange sherbet. A clear liquid diet consists of liquids that are transparent and easily digestible. Orange sherbet, being a frozen dessert, is not a clear liquid and should be avoided. Choices A, B, and C are all acceptable in a clear liquid diet. Lemon-lime sports drinks, ginger ale, and black coffee are clear liquids that can be included in the diet as they are transparent and leave little residue in the gastrointestinal tract, unlike orange sherbet.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and is receiving aspirin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding because aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding. Option B, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, is within the normal range and does not indicate a concern related to aspirin therapy. Option C, platelet count of 180,000/mm³, is also within the normal range and does not suggest a need for reporting to the provider in the context of aspirin therapy. Option D, creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and is not directly related to aspirin therapy in this scenario.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

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