ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
- B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
- C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
- D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.
2. A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Implement a regular toileting schedule
- B. Encourage the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating
- C. Place all four bed rails in the upright position
- D. Require a family member to remain at the bedside
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Implementing a regular toileting schedule is an appropriate nursing action for a client at risk for falls. This action can help prevent accidents related to rushing to the bathroom. Encouraging the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating (Choice B) is not safe as it can increase the risk of slipping and falling. Placing all four bed rails in the upright position (Choice C) can lead to entrapment or falls when the client tries to get out of bed. Requiring a family member to remain at the bedside (Choice D) may not always be feasible and does not directly address fall prevention strategies like the toileting schedule.
3. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Palpation, Inspection, Observation, Auscultation
- C. Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation
- D. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.
4. A nurse manager of a med surge unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is waiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign the client?
- A. Charge nurse
- B. RN
- C. LVN
- D. AP
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RN. An RN is required for managing post-surgical care in the immediate postoperative period, especially for a client following thoracic surgery. The RN is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to assess the client's condition, provide complex care, and recognize and respond to any complications that may arise. Assigning the client to the Charge nurse (A) may not be appropriate as the Charge nurse focuses more on administrative and managerial tasks rather than direct patient care. LVNs (C) and APs (D) may have limitations in their scope of practice when it comes to managing post-surgical care following thoracic surgery, which requires a higher level of assessment and intervention that an RN can provide.
5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Obesity and diabetes
- C. Dehydration and malnutrition
- D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.
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