a nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and a serum albumin level of 3 gdl what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian is the priority as it ensures that the client receives a comprehensive nutritional assessment and an individualized plan to address the low serum albumin level and pressure ulcer. Increasing protein intake (choice A) and administering a protein supplement (choice C) may be part of the dietitian's recommendations but should not be done without proper assessment and guidance. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance (choice D) is important but not the first step in addressing the client's nutritional needs.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin subcutaneously is to pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger. Pinching the skin helps to lift the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of injecting into the muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as the injection site for enoxaparin is typically in the abdomen or thigh, not the arm. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the skin laterally is not a recommended technique for subcutaneous injections. Choice C is also incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

5. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

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