ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
- B. Apply finger pressure to the presenting part
- C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather
- D. Call for assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario of umbilical cord prolapse during labor, the nurse should first call for assistance. Umbilical cord prolapse is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention and skilled assistance. Calling for help ensures that additional support is on the way to provide prompt intervention. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice A) is no longer recommended as it may worsen the situation. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (Choice B) can further compress the cord. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is important but should come after addressing the prolapsed cord.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will receive IV fluid before this test.
- B. The procedure will take approximately 10 to 15 minutes.
- C. You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test.
- D. You will need to sign an informed consent form before each test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is that the client will be offered orange juice to drink during the nonstress test. This is because offering the client orange juice, or another beverage high in glucose, will help stimulate the fetus during the procedure, aiding in obtaining accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because IV fluid is not typically administered before a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure usually takes around 20 to 40 minutes. Choice D is incorrect as informed consent is typically obtained once for the procedure, not before each individual test.
3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
4. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?
- A. Mongolian spots
- B. Milia spots
- C. Erythema toxicum
- D. Epstein's pearls
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Epstein's pearls are small pearly white nodules commonly observed on the roof of a newborn's mouth. They are considered a normal finding and typically disappear without treatment. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these benign nodules to differentiate them from other conditions and provide appropriate education to parents. The other choices are incorrect: A) Mongolian spots are blue or purple birthmarks commonly found on the skin; B) Milia spots are tiny white bumps on a newborn's nose and face; C) Erythema toxicum presents as a rash of flat red splotches with small bumps that can appear on a baby's skin.
5. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
- A. Dark green leafy vegetables
- B. Deep red or orange vegetables
- C. White bread and rice
- D. Meat, poultry, and fish
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.
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