Nursing Elites

1. While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
• B. Apply finger pressure to the presenting part
• C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario of umbilical cord prolapse during labor, the nurse should first call for assistance. Umbilical cord prolapse is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention and skilled assistance. Calling for help ensures that additional support is on the way to provide prompt intervention. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice A) is no longer recommended as it may worsen the situation. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (Choice B) can further compress the cord. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is important but should come after addressing the prolapsed cord.

2. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
• B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
• C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
• D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

4. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?

• A. 4
• B. 5
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.

5. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

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