Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a newborn, a nurse auscultates an apical heart rate of 130/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to verify the heart rate.
• B. Document this as an expected finding.
• C. Call the provider to further assess the newborn.
• D. Prepare the newborn for transport to the NICU.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An apical heart rate of 130/min is within the expected range for a newborn. It is not necessary to seek verification from another nurse, call the provider for further assessment, or prepare for NICU transport based on this heart rate. Documenting the heart rate as an expected finding is the appropriate action in this situation as it falls within the normal range for a newborn's heart rate.

2. When assisting a client with breastfeeding, which of the following reflexes will promote the newborn to latch?

• A. Babinski
• B. Rooting
• C. Moro
• D. Stepping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rooting. The rooting reflex is crucial in newborns as it helps them locate the nipple for feeding. This reflex involves turning the head towards a stimulus that touches the cheek or mouth, aiding in the process of latching onto the breast for breastfeeding. The Babinski reflex is the fanning out and curling of the toes when the sole of the foot is stroked, the Moro reflex is the startle reflex in response to a sudden noise or movement, and the stepping reflex is the appearance of taking steps when an infant is held upright with feet touching a solid surface. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in promoting a newborn to latch during breastfeeding.

3. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

4. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
• B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
• C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
• D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

• A. Chadwick's sign
• B. Goodell's sign
• C. Ballottement
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

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