Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

2. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?

• A. Cephalic
• B. Transverse
• C. Posterior
• D. Frank breech

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.

3. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

4. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

5. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?

• A. Leukorrhea
• B. Supine hypotension
• C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.

Similar Questions