ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
2. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- B. Rheumatoid factor
- C. Antinuclear antibody
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post-maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.
4. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
5. A nurse is assisting with meal planning for a client who has been prescribed a mechanical soft diet. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Applesauce
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Orange slices
- D. Soft bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange slices. Orange slices contain membranes that are difficult to swallow, which can pose a risk to clients on a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet is designed for individuals who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Choices A, B, and D are suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to chew and swallow.
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