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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to listen to music
- B. Ask the client what the voices are saying
- C. Provide the client with a distraction
- D. Administer an antipsychotic medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the priority action as it helps assess the content of the hallucinations. This assessment is crucial to determine if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others. Encouraging the client to listen to music or providing a distraction may not address the underlying issues related to the hallucinations. Administering antipsychotic medication, although important, should come after a thorough assessment of the hallucinations to ensure the right medication and dosage are provided.
2. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
3. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
4. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Improved lung sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.
5. A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?
- A. Influenza
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Hepatitis B
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.
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