Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.5 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.5 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

3. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

• A. A client with cystic fibrosis who has a productive cough and reports thirst
• B. A client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
• C. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 185 mg/dL
• D. A client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

5. When educating a client about valproic acid, which instruction is essential?

• A. Monitor for rash
• B. Expect weight loss
• C. Consider it safe during pregnancy
• D. Purchase it over-the-counter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for rash. Valproic acid can lead to severe skin rashes, and patients must be vigilant to report any rash promptly. Choice B is incorrect as valproic acid is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is associated with birth defects and should be avoided during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as valproic acid is a prescription medication and not available over-the-counter.

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