ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Increase your fluid intake.
- D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is an important teaching point for clients starting metformin to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of this medication. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, bloating, and diarrhea, which can be reduced by staying well-hydrated. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake will help minimize these side effects and improve medication tolerance. The other options are incorrect: Option A is a general instruction for taking medications but not specifically related to metformin. Option B is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather hyperglycemia. Option D is also incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Expect an increase in urination.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.
3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
4. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon is being taught by the nurse about preventing episodes. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
- A. Wear gloves in cold weather.
- B. Avoid caffeine and chocolate.
- C. Increase intake of vitamin C.
- D. Use a heating pad for warmth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear gloves in cold weather.' Wearing gloves in cold weather is essential for preventing vasoconstriction and subsequent episodes of Raynaud's phenomenon. Cold temperatures can trigger vasospasms in individuals with Raynaud's, and wearing gloves helps maintain warmth and prevent the constriction of blood vessels in the extremities, reducing the likelihood of an episode. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while avoiding caffeine and chocolate, increasing vitamin C intake, and using a heating pad for warmth can be beneficial for overall health, they are not specifically targeted at preventing Raynaud's phenomenon episodes triggered by cold weather.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to oral health issues and requires dental care. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with phenytoin use. Weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination are not typically reported findings related to phenytoin and should not be prioritized over gingival hyperplasia when assessing a client taking this medication.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access