Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to assist in the care of a client who has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which is the priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output.
• B. Check the client's surgical dressing.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority action post-CABG surgery to monitor for signs of cerebral hypoxia or other complications that require immediate intervention. Changes in the client's level of consciousness can indicate neurological deterioration, which is critical to address promptly in this postoperative period. Monitoring urine output, checking surgical dressing, and measuring blood pressure are important aspects of postoperative care but assessing the client's level of consciousness takes precedence as it provides crucial information about the client's neurological status and the need for urgent intervention.

2. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Wheezes
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to immediately report?

• A. Muscle pain or tenderness
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle pain or tenderness.' This can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin (Lipitor). Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which muscle breakdown releases a protein that can damage the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report any muscle pain or tenderness immediately to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) use or indicative of a serious adverse effect that requires immediate reporting.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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