ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. Using Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated delivery date for a pregnant client whose last menstrual period was on May 4th, 2013?
- A. January 15, 2014
- B. February 11, 2014
- C. March 3, 2014
- D. December 25, 2013
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule is a standard method for calculating the estimated delivery date (EDD). It involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and then adding one year. For a client with an LMP of May 4th, 2013, subtracting three months gives February 4th. Adding seven days results in a due date of February 11th, 2014, which is the correct answer. Choice A (January 15, 2014) is incorrect as it does not account for the full calculation. Choice C (March 3, 2014) is incorrect as it adds too many days in the calculation. Choice D (December 25, 2013) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct steps of Naegele's rule.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes early decelerations in the FHR on the fetal monitor tracing. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions causes early decelerations in the FHR?
- A. Fetal hypoxemia
- B. Cord compression
- C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions, which is a normal response as the fetal head is being compressed during uterine contractions. This usually indicates that the fetus is descending into the birth canal. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Fetal hypoxemia, cord compression, and uteroplacental insufficiency typically present with variable or late decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing, not early decelerations.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.
4. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
- A. A client with cystic fibrosis who has a productive cough and reports thirst
- B. A client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
- C. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 185 mg/dL
- D. A client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer rapidly
- B. Dilute the medication before administration
- C. Give it as a bolus
- D. Administer it intramuscularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.
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