a nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client which of the following statements by the client indicates an un
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A client is reviewing information about advance directives with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having a living will indicates that the client understands and has documented their wishes regarding medical treatment when they are unable to make decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while it's true that clients can change their minds about advance directives, it doesn't specifically indicate an understanding of the teaching provided. Choice C is important but doesn't directly show if the client understands advance directives. Choice D is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of advance directives, indicating a lack of understanding.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.

3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

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