ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
- A. Left upper quadrant
- B. Right upper quadrant
- C. Left lower quadrant
- D. Right lower quadrant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is best heard in the left lower quadrant of the client's abdomen. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant allows for optimal detection of fetal heart tones in this specific fetal position. Choice A (Left upper quadrant) is incorrect as it is not where the fetal heart tones are best heard in this scenario. Choice B (Right upper quadrant) is also incorrect as it is not the recommended area for assessing fetal heart tones in a left occipital anterior position. Choice D (Right lower quadrant) is incorrect as the focus should be on the left side due to the fetal position mentioned.
2. A caregiver is learning about newborn safety. Which of the following statements by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will dress my baby in flame-retardant clothing.
- B. I will ensure a bib on my baby at night to keep her clothing dry.
- C. I will warm my baby's formula using the lowest setting in the microwave.
- D. I will cover the crib mattress with plastic to prevent staining.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dressing a baby in flame-retardant clothing is crucial to prevent injuries, especially in case of accidental exposure to fire sources. This safety measure can provide an added layer of protection for the newborn. The other options do not directly address newborn safety concerns or best practices. Option B focuses on keeping clothing dry, which is not a primary safety concern. Option C poses a risk of overheating the formula, which can be dangerous for the baby. Option D, covering the crib mattress with plastic, may pose a suffocation hazard to the baby.
3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
4. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
5. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?
- A. Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
- B. Fetal lie is longitudinal.
- C. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid.
- D. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a persistent occiput posterior position, the baby's head presses against the mother's spine, causing prolonged labor and severe backache. This position can lead to difficulties in labor progress and increase discomfort for the mother. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the client's difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Fetal attitude, fetal lie, and maternal pelvis type may affect labor, but in this scenario, the persistent occiput posterior fetal position is the primary contributing cause for the client's symptoms.
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