Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen. What is the most important safety consideration?

• A. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen
• B. Ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is crucial to prevent any potential fire hazard, as oxygen supports combustion. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice A) is not necessary for oxygen safety. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire risk. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice D) is unsafe because proper ventilation is needed to prevent oxygen accumulation.

2. What should a healthcare professional do when a client with anorexia nervosa insists on working out constantly?

• A. Allow the client to workout and continue their regimen
• B. Restrict the client's workout regimen to one hour a day
• C. Discuss the risks of over-exercising with the client
• D. Speak to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client with anorexia nervosa who insists on working out constantly, it is crucial to address the situation sensitively. Speaking to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession is the most appropriate action. This approach allows the healthcare professional to understand the underlying reasons for the behavior and work towards a solution together. Choices A and B could potentially exacerbate the client's condition by either enabling the behavior or imposing restrictions without addressing the root cause. While choice C is important, simply discussing the risks may not address the client's compulsion to exercise excessively.

3. A home health nurse is caring for an older adult client who just returned home following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess mobility
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Reinforce discharge teaching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing mobility should be the nurse's priority as it ensures the client's safety and helps in developing an appropriate care plan. By evaluating the client's ability to move after the knee arthroplasty, the nurse can identify any immediate issues or complications that need to be addressed promptly. Monitoring vital signs, providing pain relief, and reinforcing discharge teaching are important aspects of care but assessing mobility takes precedence in ensuring the client's immediate well-being and identifying any potential risks.

4. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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