a laboring client received meperidine iv one hour prior to delivery which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract t
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

3. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.

4. A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, “It just doesn’t seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.

5. A nurse is planning care for a patient who follows the Mormon belief system. What modifications should the nurse include to meet Mormon dietary practices?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer non-caffeinated beverage options. Mormons avoid caffeinated beverages, so providing non-caffeinated options aligns with their religious practices. Choice A is incorrect because offering only vegetarian meal options is not a specific requirement of the Mormon dietary practices. Choice C is incorrect as kosher meals are associated with Jewish dietary laws, not specific to the Mormon belief system. Choice D is incorrect as limiting meat to only fish and poultry is not a specific dietary requirement for Mormons.

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