Nursing Elites

1. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg.
• C. Massage the affected leg.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg. This helps alleviate pain and improve circulation in the affected area, aiding in the treatment of DVT. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice A) is contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and lead to complications. Massaging the affected leg (Choice C) is also contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and potentially cause an embolism. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for DVT treatment; elevation of the affected leg is preferred over placing the client completely supine.

4. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Fluid intake
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.

5. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

• A. History of fibroids
• B. Early menopause
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.

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