Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

• A. 4 g sodium diet
• B. Potassium-restricted diet
• C. High phosphorus diet
• D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Resume normal activities immediately
• B. Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence
• C. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
• D. Take medications only as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence.' After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for clients to be vigilant about any signs of chest pain as it could indicate a recurrent event. Prompt reporting of chest pain can lead to timely intervention, preventing further complications. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after a heart attack can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all physical activity for 6 months is excessive and can lead to deconditioning. Choice D is incorrect as medications prescribed after a myocardial infarction are usually meant to be taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed.

4. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

• A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
• B. Tenderness present during menstruation
• C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
• D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 30 gtt/min
• B. 32 gtt/min
• C. 33 gtt/min
• D. 35 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL ÷ 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.

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