a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa which of the following instructions should t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

3. A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is completing an assessment of a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which of the following findings is indicative of cold stress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness of the hands is a classic sign of cold stress in newborns, indicating that the infant is having difficulty maintaining a stable body temperature. Cold stress can lead to hypoglycemia and increased oxygen consumption. The other options (A, C, and D) are not directly associated with cold stress in newborns. A respiratory rate of 60 per minute may be within the normal range for a newborn. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not specific signs of cold stress in newborns.

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