ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon to improve absorption
- B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
- C. Take on a full stomach
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose one day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?
- A. Client has a low-grade fever
- B. Client is allergic to eggs
- C. Client had recent surgery
- D. Client is on corticosteroid therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.
3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Rash
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to make?
- A. You will not receive medication through an IV for this test.
- B. You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.
- C. You do not need to eat or drink for 4 hours prior to the test.
- D. This test will help determine if your baby's lungs are mature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is choice B, 'You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.' The nonstress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to movements. Choice A is incorrect because medications are not typically administered during a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before the test. Choice D is incorrect because determining fetal lung maturity is usually done through other tests, not the nonstress test.
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