ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
- B. Swelling in the legs
- C. Persistent cough
- D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.
4. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this pill with my breakfast.
- B. I will take this medication with a glass of milk.
- C. I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill.
- D. I plan to add more calcium-rich foods to my diet while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking iron supplements with orange juice, which contains vitamin C, enhances the absorption of iron, making the treatment more effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with milk, calcium-rich foods, or breakfast may hinder iron absorption due to interactions with calcium or other substances that compete with iron absorption.
5. General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include:
- A. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen.
- B. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination.
- C. examining the child in the parent's arms.
- D. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach can help maintain the child's comfort, keep them calm, and increase their cooperation during the assessment. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice A) can be distressing and uncomfortable for the child. Separating the child from the parent (Choice B) may cause additional stress and hinder the examination process. Palpating the painful area first (Choice D) can lead to increased discomfort and resistance from the child.