ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)
- A. 0.5 mL
- B. 0.005 mL
- C. 0.05 mL
- D. 5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.
3. A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?
- A. 0745
- B. 0700
- C. 0645
- D. 0457
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.
4. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Reduces blood pressure
- B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
- C. Promotes RBC production
- D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I know that blurred vision is something I will expect to happen while taking digoxin.
- B. I will measure my urine output each day and document it in my diary.
- C. I will skip a dose of my digoxin if my resting heart rate is below 72 beats per minute.
- D. I will eat fruits and vegetables that have high potassium content every day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.
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