ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Cross your legs at the ankles while sitting
- B. Avoid bending your hips more than 90 degrees
- C. Sit in a low-seated chair
- D. Twist your body when standing up
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis, the client should avoid bending their hips more than 90 degrees. Excessive bending at the hips can increase the risk of hip dislocation, which is a significant concern following total hip arthroplasty. Sitting with crossed legs at the ankles (choice A) can also increase the risk of hip dislocation and should be avoided. Sitting in a low-seated chair (choice C) can make it more challenging for the client to stand up safely. Twisting the body when standing up (choice D) can also strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Therefore, the correct instruction to include during discharge teaching is to avoid bending the hips more than 90 degrees.
2. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
- B. Flaccid neck muscles.
- C. Petechial rash.
- D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.
3. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.
4. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tremors
- B. Urine retention
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking milk.
- B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
- C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
- D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.
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