Nursing Elites

1. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
• B. Weakened uterine contractions
• C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
• D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

2. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
• B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• D. Slow the client's breathing rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.

3. A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Fundus firm to palpation
• C. Increase in lochia
• D. Report of absent breast pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.

4. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?

• A. Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
• B. Fetal lie is longitudinal.
• C. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid.
• D. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a persistent occiput posterior position, the baby's head presses against the mother's spine, causing prolonged labor and severe backache. This position can lead to difficulties in labor progress and increase discomfort for the mother. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the client's difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Fetal attitude, fetal lie, and maternal pelvis type may affect labor, but in this scenario, the persistent occiput posterior fetal position is the primary contributing cause for the client's symptoms.

5. A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?

• A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
• B. Absence of vitamin K
• C. Physiologic jaundice
• D. Maternal cocaine abuse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.

Similar Questions