Nursing Elites

1. During an admission interview, a nurse is assessing a client's personal identity. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

• A. What is your marital status?
• B. How would you describe yourself?
• C. Are you employed?
• D. Do you have any children?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing personal identity, it is important to ask questions that prompt clients to describe themselves. Question B, 'How would you describe yourself?' is the most appropriate as it allows the client to share their own perceptions and characteristics, aiding in understanding their personal identity. Choices A, C, and D are more focused on specific personal details such as marital status, employment status, and parental status, which do not directly contribute to understanding personal identity.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

3. A client with a seizure disorder is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the bedside.
• B. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
• C. Restrain the client during a seizure.
• D. Keep the lights dim in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client during a seizure. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls during a seizure episode. It is important not to restrain the client during a seizure as it can lead to further injury. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the bedside is not appropriate and can pose a risk of injury if used incorrectly. Keeping the lights dim in the client's room is not directly related to safety during a seizure and is not a standard precaution.

4. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• B. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease. Avoiding gluten-containing foods is crucial to managing the condition and preventing symptoms and complications associated with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing dairy intake (Choice B) is not necessary for celiac disease management. Avoiding lactose (Choice C) is relevant for individuals with lactose intolerance, not celiac disease. While high-fiber foods (Choice D) are generally beneficial for health, they are not specifically indicated for celiac disease management.

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