Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

2. The healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching for a client who is starting statin therapy. Which dietary advice should the healthcare provider give?

• A. Eat more whole grains.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Grapefruit and grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. It is crucial for clients on statin therapy to avoid grapefruit products to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the metabolism or effectiveness of statin therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
• D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.

5. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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