ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST-segment depression
- C. Prolonged P-R interval
- D. Widening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: B
Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.
2. Which of the following is not an infectious cause of diarrhea?
- A. Allergy
- B. Bacteria
- C. Parasite
- D. Virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allergy. Allergy is not an infectious cause of diarrhea. Diarrhea caused by bacteria, parasites, and viruses is due to infection, while an allergy triggers an immune response that can lead to diarrhea but is not caused by an infectious agent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bacteria, parasites, and viruses are known infectious causes of diarrhea, resulting from infections by these microorganisms.
3. Where does the major portion of the chemical digestion of lipids occur?
- A. Mouth.
- B. Stomach.
- C. Small intestine.
- D. Large intestine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Small intestine. The majority of lipid digestion occurs in the small intestine, where bile and pancreatic lipase are active. Lipids are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol in the small intestine. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the mouth and stomach play minor roles in lipid digestion, and the large intestine is mainly responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from the indigestible food residues.
4. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.
5. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Sudden weight loss
- B. Regular contractions
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Vaginal spotting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.
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