Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

2. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Assist the client to sit or lie down.
• C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
• D. Apply nasal oxygen at a rate of 2 L/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.

3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

4. When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Muscle pain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Facial flushing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Prepare the client for intubation.
• D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.

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