the lpnlvn is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia which
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

2. What is the initial action the nurse should take for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) and is experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority action for a client experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate after a myocardial infarction (MI). This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation, improve cardiac function, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy takes precedence over administering medications like morphine sulfate or notifying the healthcare provider as it addresses the immediate need for oxygenation. Checking the blood pressure is also important but not as urgent as ensuring proper oxygen supply.

3. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

4. A client has a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking isoniazid to prevent potential liver complications. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid is typically taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of isoniazid. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase leafy green vegetable intake when taking isoniazid.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.

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