Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

2. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Dry cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. This adverse reaction can be bothersome to the client and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Weight gain, hypokalemia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with lisinopril and would not be as concerning as a dry cough when assessing for adverse effects.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

4. The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not directly associated with an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) can contribute to digoxin toxicity, but hypokalemia has a more significant impact on increasing the risk.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Frequent urination
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Bleeding gums

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.

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