Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to the drug's effect on slowing down the heart rate excessively. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to visual disturbances caused by digoxin, but it is not a defining sign of toxicity. Dry cough (Choice D) is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the early signs of digoxin toxicity to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate interventions promptly.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Clear lung sounds
• B. Increased peripheral pulses
• C. Bibasilar crackles
• D. Improved activity tolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bibasilar crackles are abnormal lung sounds that indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign that left-sided heart failure is worsening. This finding suggests that the client's condition is deteriorating and requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are normal and would not indicate worsening heart failure. Increased peripheral pulses (Choice B) may be seen in conditions like anxiety or exercise, but not specifically in worsening left-sided heart failure. Improved activity tolerance (Choice D) would be a positive sign, not an indicator of worsening heart failure.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to immediately report?

• A. Muscle pain or tenderness
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle pain or tenderness.' This can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin (Lipitor). Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which muscle breakdown releases a protein that can damage the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report any muscle pain or tenderness immediately to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) use or indicative of a serious adverse effect that requires immediate reporting.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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