Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism?

• A. Encourage ambulation as tolerated.
• B. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
• C. Apply cold compresses to the affected area.
• D. Encourage the use of incentive spirometry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is crucial in preventing the complication of pulmonary embolism in clients with deep vein thrombosis. Anticoagulants help prevent the formation of new clots and the enlargement of existing ones, thereby reducing the risk of a pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation as tolerated is beneficial for preventing complications related to immobility, but it is not the primary intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism in this case. Applying cold compresses to the affected area may help with pain and swelling but does not address the prevention of pulmonary embolism. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry is more relevant in preventing respiratory complications such as atelectasis, not specifically pulmonary embolism.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

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