Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

2. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

3. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
• B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
• C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
• D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.

4. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.

5. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

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