Nursing Elites

1. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?

• A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
• B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
• C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
• D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.

2. The client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause disturbances in the heart's electrical conduction system, leading to a slower heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for signs of bradycardia, which could indicate digoxin toxicity. Hypertension (Choice A), hyperglycemia (Choice C), and insomnia (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

4. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
• B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.

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