ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology
1. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?
- A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
- B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
- C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
- D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.
2. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?
- A. Stroke
- B. Cardiac arrest
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Urinary stone formation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should reinforce with the client the importance of reporting which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Headache
- C. Gingival bleeding
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Gingival bleeding.' Gingival bleeding is a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants work by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot, which can lead to bleeding issues, including gingival bleeding. Nausea, headache, and dizziness are not typically associated with anticoagulant therapy. Since bleeding, including gingival bleeding, can be a serious side effect that requires medical attention, the client should be educated on reporting it promptly to their healthcare provider.
4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
5. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer oxygen.
- C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Apply a nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.
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