ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
- B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
- C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
- D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.
2. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
- B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours
- C. Plan for oxygen therapy with a rebreather mask
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Hydrogen peroxide
- B. Chlorhexidine
- C. Isopropyl alcohol
- D. Chlorine bleach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.
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