Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will continue taking my isoniazid until I am no longer contagious.
• B. I should take my prescribed medication for at least 6 months.
• C. I will need to have a TB skin test every 3 months.
• D. I should wear a mask at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.

2. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?

• A. Sleep disturbances
• B. Concomitant depression
• C. Agitation and assaultiveness
• D. Confusion and withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.

3. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

4. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?

• A. Elevated potassium levels, muscle weakness; administer calcium gluconate
• B. Decreased potassium levels, confusion; administer potassium chloride
• C. Elevated sodium levels, bradycardia; administer sodium bicarbonate
• D. Low sodium levels, muscle cramps; administer sodium chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.

5. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 24 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol-based solutions
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

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