Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The nurse learns that the client has decided not to have surgery even though they have already signed the informed consent form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ignore the client's decision and proceed
• B. Report the situation to the provider
• C. Ask the family to convince the client
• D. Reassess the need for surgery with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to report the client's decision to the provider who obtained informed consent. This ensures that the provider is informed of the client's change in decision and can discuss the situation further with the client. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the client's decision is not appropriate and goes against the principles of patient autonomy. Choice C is incorrect because involving the family in convincing the client can be coercive and may not respect the client's autonomy. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not re-sign the informed consent form without the client's consent and a discussion with the provider.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
• B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
• D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.

3. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, vomiting; manage with antiemetics
• B. Hair loss and anemia; manage with blood transfusions
• C. Diarrhea and fatigue; manage with hydration
• D. Weight gain and high blood pressure; manage with diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

4. Which of the following is the best strategy for managing dehydration in a client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more water
• B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently
• C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
• D. Increase the IV fluid rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing dehydration in a client is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently. This allows healthcare providers to assess the client's hydration status accurately and make informed decisions regarding treatment. Encouraging the client to drink more water (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the dehydration is severe and requires specific interventions. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial but should be guided by monitoring the client's condition. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice D) may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not always the initial or best approach, as monitoring is crucial to avoid fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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