Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client how to administer enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Inject the medication into the muscle of the thigh
• B. Massage the injection site after administration
• C. Pinch the skin before injecting
• D. Administer the medication at the same time each day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering enoxaparin is to pinch the skin before injecting. Pinching the skin helps create a proper fold for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin, ensuring proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Injecting it into the muscle can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising due to the anticoagulant properties of enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as it is a general instruction and does not specifically relate to the administration of enoxaparin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour after surgery.
• B. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Client report of pain at the chest tube insertion site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which should be reported to the provider. This finding suggests that the chest tube system is not functioning properly, leading to potential complications such as pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour after surgery is within the expected range for a chest tube. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates proper functioning of the system. Client report of pain at the chest tube insertion site is expected after surgery and can be managed with appropriate pain management measures.

3. A nurse in a long-term care facility is assisting with an in-service for newly hired assistive personnel about legal issues within the facility. Which of the following should the nurse include as an example of assault?

• A. Threatening to withhold food from a client
• B. Informing a client about an upcoming procedure
• C. Informing a client about risks of refusing treatment
• D. Informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because assault involves threatening a client with harm or unwanted procedures. In this scenario, informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will constitutes assault. Choices A, B, and C do not involve the element of threatening harm or unwanted procedures, making them incorrect. Choice A is more related to neglect, choice B is related to informing the client about a procedure, and choice C is related to informed consent and refusal of treatment, not assault.

4. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Confusion or Irritability
• C. Hunger
• D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.

5. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?

• A. Check for facial droop
• B. Assess speech clarity
• C. Perform a neurological assessment
• D. Call for emergency assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.

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