Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Perform palpation before auscultation
• B. Perform percussion before auscultation
• C. Perform palpation after auscultation
• D. Perform inspection after auscultation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.

3. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan to support the client’s cognitive function?

• A. Place a daily calendar in the kitchen
• B. Replace buttoned clothing with zippered items
• C. Replace carpet with hardwood floors
• D. Create variation in the daily routine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is beneficial for clients with Alzheimer's disease as it helps in orienting them to time and enhances cognitive function. This visual aid can assist in keeping track of days and activities. Choice B, replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items, is more related to promoting independence in dressing rather than directly supporting cognitive function. Choice C, replacing carpet with hardwood floors, focuses on safety and mobility rather than cognitive function. Choice D, creating variation in the daily routine, may be helpful for engagement and stimulation but does not directly address cognitive function as effectively as using a daily calendar.

5. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

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