a nurse is providing care to a client with severe preeclampsia which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and has an NG tube for suction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications to a client with an NG tube for suction who is NPO is to clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration. This is done to allow for proper absorption of the medications before resuming suction. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be mixed with enteral feedings as it may affect the drug's effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as medications should not be inserted directly into the NG tube without dilution, as this can cause clogging or affect the tube. Choice D is incorrect because connecting the NG tube to continuous suction after medication administration can interfere with the absorption of the medications.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.

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