Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

2. A client is being educated about using an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to have the IUD replaced each year.
• B. I will need to apply a spermicide prior to intercourse.
• C. I should expect my periods to stop while I have the IUD.
• D. I should check for the string each month after menstruation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client should check for the string each month after menstruation to ensure the IUD is in place. This practice helps in identifying any displacement of the IUD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A is incorrect because IUDs have different durations depending on the type, not all require yearly replacement. B is incorrect because IUDs do not require spermicide for effectiveness. C is incorrect because while some individuals may experience changes in their menstrual patterns, it is not guaranteed that periods will stop while using an IUD.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

5. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the management of hypoglycemia. Which sign should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Polyuria
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. Instructing the client to monitor for diaphoresis is crucial as it can help them recognize and address hypoglycemic events promptly. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific indicators of low blood sugar levels.

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