Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

• A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
• B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
• C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
• D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

3. A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes
• B. A client with rotavirus who has been vomiting
• C. A client who has a urinary catheter and cloudy urine
• D. A client who has pneumonia and a new onset of confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with pneumonia and a new onset of confusion needs immediate evaluation for changes in neurological status. This could indicate a decline in respiratory status or potential complications such as hypoxia or sepsis. Option A, a client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes, may need intervention but does not indicate an acute change in condition. Option B, a client with rotavirus who has been vomiting, requires assessment and intervention but does not pose an immediate threat to life. Option C, a client with a urinary catheter and cloudy urine, may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not require immediate attention compared to the client with new onset confusion and pneumonia.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
• B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
• C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.

5. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

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