what are the signs of opioid withdrawal and how should it be managed
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ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.

4. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about cane use for a client with left-leg weakness. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain two points of support on the ground at all times. When using a cane for left-leg weakness, the client should hold the cane in the right hand and advance the cane and the weak leg simultaneously. This technique provides the necessary support and stability. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the side opposite the weakness to provide support. Option C is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step may cause the client to lose balance. Option D is incorrect because advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously does not provide the needed support for the weakened leg.

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