Nursing Elites

1. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

2. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

• A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
• B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
• C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
• D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

3. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

4. When providing family education for those who have a relative with Alzheimer's disease about minimizing stress, which of the following suggestions is most relevant?

• A. Allow the client to rest four to five times during the day
• B. Assess the cognitive functioning of the client regularly
• C. Provide reality orientation even if the memory loss is severe
• D. Maintain consistency in environment, routine, and caregivers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most relevant suggestion for minimizing stress in individuals with Alzheimer's disease is to maintain consistency in the environment, routine, and caregivers. This approach helps create a sense of familiarity and security for the individual, reducing stress and anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests allowing the client to go to bed multiple times during the day, which may disrupt their routine and lead to confusion. Choice B is incorrect as continuously testing cognitive functioning can be overwhelming and stressful for the individual. Choice C is also incorrect as providing reality orientation in cases of severe memory loss can cause frustration and confusion, ultimately increasing stress levels.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

• A. Level of consciousness.
• B. Skin turgor.
• C. Deep-tendon reflexes.
• D. Bowel sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

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