ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks pregnant and reports leaking fluid. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to confirm that the client's membranes have ruptured?
- A. Nonstress test
- B. Biophysical profile
- C. Fern test
- D. Amniocentesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Fern test. The Fern test is specifically used to confirm the rupture of membranes. A sample of vaginal fluid is examined under a microscope, and the presence of a fern-like pattern indicates the presence of amniotic fluid. The Nonstress test (Choice A) is used to monitor fetal heart rate and movement, not to confirm ruptured membranes. The Biophysical profile (Choice B) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation to assess fetal well-being, not to confirm ruptured membranes. Amniocentesis (Choice D) involves the aspiration of amniotic fluid for various diagnostic purposes, not specifically to confirm ruptured membranes.
2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
3. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
- A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Pulse 54/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
4. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?
- A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
- B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
- C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
- D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin to prevent DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe
- B. Inject the medication in the lateral abdominal wall
- C. Massage the injection site to evenly distribute the medication
- D. Administer NSAIDs for injection site discomfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin in the lateral abdominal wall. This site is typically recommended for subcutaneous injections of this medication. Expelling air bubbles from prefilled syringes is not necessary and may result in medication loss. Massaging the injection site is contraindicated as it can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Administering NSAIDs for injection site discomfort is unnecessary and not a standard practice.
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