Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It is a stimulant
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.

2. A healthcare provider is providing education to a client about atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for muscle pain
• B. Avoid sun exposure
• C. Report any gastrointestinal symptoms
• D. Check liver function tests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities. Monitoring for muscle pain is essential as it can be a sign of a serious side effect called rhabdomyolysis. While liver function tests are necessary before starting atorvastatin, checking them continuously may not be required. Avoiding sun exposure and reporting gastrointestinal symptoms are not directly associated with atorvastatin use.

3. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
• B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
• C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
• D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an anticoagulant
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. It can be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

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