Nursing Elites

1. What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Increase environmental stimulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.

2. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?

• A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
• B. Administer a bronchodilator
• C. Suction the tracheostomy
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?

• A. Assist the client to void
• B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
• C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Prepare to administer a sedative

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.

5. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

• A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
• B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
• C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
• D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

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