Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client after surgery. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Resume normal activities immediately
• B. Monitor for signs of infection
• C. Avoid all physical activity for 1 month
• D. Take pain medications only as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' After surgery, it is essential for clients to watch for signs of infection, such as increased redness, swelling, or drainage at the incision site. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after surgery can be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as complete avoidance of physical activity for a month is typically not necessary and can lead to complications like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect as taking pain medications only as needed may not provide adequate pain management post-surgery.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

3. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?

• A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
• C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
• D. Urine pH 6

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken with food
• D. It is an opioid medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.

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