a nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis to prevent injury the nurse should instruct the client to
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hr, which should be rounded up to 63 mL/hr. This ensures the correct rate is set for continuous feeding. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice B (62 mL/hr) is close but does not round up to the nearest whole number as required. Choice D (65 mL/hr) is higher than the correct calculation and would deliver the feeding solution at a faster rate than prescribed.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

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