ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has a nonpalpable skin lesion that is less than 0.5 cm (0.2 in) in diameter. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
- A. Papule
- B. Vesicle
- C. Macule
- D. Nodule
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct term the nurse should use to document this finding is 'Macule.' A macule is a flat, nonpalpable skin lesion that is smaller than 1 cm in diameter. In this case, the lesion described is less than 0.5 cm, making it appropriate to classify it as a macule. 'Papule' (Choice A) refers to a solid, elevated skin lesion, 'Vesicle' (Choice B) is a small fluid-filled blister, and 'Nodule' (Choice D) is a solid, elevated skin lesion that is larger and deeper than a papule, none of which accurately describe the lesion in question.
5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
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