ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Fried chicken
- B. Oatmeal
- C. Bacon
- D. Whole milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps lower cholesterol levels, making it a heart-healthy food option for clients at risk for cardiovascular disease. Fried chicken, bacon, and whole milk are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can increase the risk of heart disease and should be limited in the diet of individuals at risk for cardiovascular issues.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips
- B. Bleeding gums
- C. Foul-smelling breath
- D. Red, open sores in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Signs of superinfection
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
4. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
- A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
- B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
- C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
- D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
5. A client is reviewing information about advance directives with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I understand that I can change my mind at any time.
- B. I have a living will that outlines my wishes when I am unable to make a decision.
- C. I need to inform my family about my wishes.
- D. I don’t need to worry about advance directives right now.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having a living will indicates that the client understands and has documented their wishes regarding medical treatment when they are unable to make decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while it's true that clients can change their minds about advance directives, it doesn't specifically indicate an understanding of the teaching provided. Choice C is important but doesn't directly show if the client understands advance directives. Choice D is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of advance directives, indicating a lack of understanding.
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