ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation is experiencing contractions every 45 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 45 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can pose risks to both the client and the fetus. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can help prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing, decreasing, or maintaining the oxytocin infusion can exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and increase the risks associated with it.
2. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Swelling in the limb
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Improved mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling in the limb. Swelling, particularly in one limb, is a common sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and should be assessed. This swelling is often accompanied by pain, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate, increased appetite, and improved mobility are not typically associated with DVT. The main focus in assessing for DVT is recognizing the signs and symptoms related to venous thrombosis.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
- B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
- C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
- D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.
4. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
- B. It is safe to give to children
- C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
- B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
- C. Steak, French fries, corn
- D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.
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