a nurse is caring for a client receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. While caring for a client receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain, which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause hypotension due to its vasodilating effect, which can lead to low blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, light-headedness, or weakness. Tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with nitroglycerin use and are less likely to be side effects that the nurse needs to monitor for in this scenario.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.

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