Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 mL
• B. 2 mL
• C. 3 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Iron 90 mcg/dl.
• B. Prealbumin 10 mcg/dl.
• C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl.
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dl.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Low prealbumin levels are indicative of malnutrition, which is common in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Iron levels, serum creatinine, and calcium levels are not typically affected in the same way by anorexia nervosa, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. A client with heart failure is on a fluid restriction. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more water to stay hydrated
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily
• C. Avoid drinking water after 6 PM
• D. Monitor fluid intake only during meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor the client's weight daily.' In clients with heart failure on fluid restriction, monitoring daily weight is crucial to track fluid balance. This allows healthcare providers to assess if the client is retaining excess fluid, a common issue in heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink more water contradicts the fluid restriction; avoiding drinking water after 6 PM is not specific to managing fluid restriction; and monitoring fluid intake only during meals does not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid balance throughout the day.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance
• B. Position the patient in a prone position and give fluids
• C. Administer anticoagulants and elevate the patient's legs
• D. Administer thrombolytics and perform chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

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