a nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg im available is metoclopramide 5 mgml how many ml should the nurse administer
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

2. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

4. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

5. A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because the nurse should inform the client of their availability to interpret, ensuring that communication is clear and culturally appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as interpreters in healthcare settings usually do not receive fees for providing interpretation services. Choice C is incorrect because suggesting the use of a family member as an interpreter may not ensure accurate communication, as they may not be trained or impartial. Choice D is incorrect because stating that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift does not address the current situation where the nurse has agreed to interpret for the client.

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