a nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is npo and is receiving enteral feedings through an ng tube which of the following pres
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

2. When should a nurse suction a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the client when they show signs of irritability. Signs of irritability, such as restlessness or agitation, can indicate the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. This early indicator suggests that there may be an accumulation of secretions affecting the client's airway. Suctioning should be performed promptly to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because suctioning should be based on clinical signs and symptoms indicating the need for intervention, rather than a fixed schedule or specific vital sign parameters.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

5. A client who is taking furosemide is being taught by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. Therefore, recommending foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, can help maintain potassium levels within the normal range. Choices B, C, and D are not the best recommendations in this case as they are not particularly high in potassium.

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