Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

• A. Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID
• B. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID
• C. Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily
• D. Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

2. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record.
• B. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record.
• C. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed.
• D. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote wound healing?

• A. Apply heat to the surgical site
• B. Ensure the client consumes adequate protein
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently
• D. Instruct the client to drink 4 liters of water daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client consumes adequate protein. Protein is essential for wound healing as it supports tissue repair. Applying heat to the surgical site (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase inflammation. Although ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for circulation and preventing complications, it is not directly related to promoting wound healing. Instructing the client to drink 4 liters of water daily (choice D) is excessive and not specifically related to wound healing in this context.

4. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
• D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

5. What is the nurse's responsibility when managing a physically assaultive client?

• A. Restrict the client to the room
• B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
• C. Restore the client's self-control
• D. Clear the area of other clients

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restore the client's self-control. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's responsibility is to help the client regain control over their actions and emotions. This is crucial in preventing harm to themselves and others. Restricting the client to the room (Choice A) may escalate the situation and is not a therapeutic approach. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (Choice B) is important for safety but does not address the root cause of the behavior. Clearing the area of other clients (Choice D) is necessary for safety but does not directly address the client's self-control. Therefore, the priority in managing an assaultive client is to focus on restoring their self-control.

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