a nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is npo and is receiving enteral feedings through an ng tube which of the following pres
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

2. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

4. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is at risk of developing pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position. Positioning the client laterally reduces pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and helping prevent pressure injuries. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) increases pressure on the bony prominences, raising the risk of pressure injuries. Similarly, placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) can also increase pressure on certain areas. While encouraging the client to reposition every 4 hours (choice C) is important, the specific lateral positioning is more beneficial in preventing pressure injuries.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

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