a nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has an ng tube for continuous feedings which of the following actions should the nurse
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ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client who has an NG tube for continuous feedings. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering medications through a syringe is the correct action to take when a client has an NG tube for continuous feedings. This method ensures that each medication is delivered correctly and is not mixed with the enteral feeding, preventing drug interactions and ensuring proper administration of each medication. Adding crushed medications to the enteral feeding (Choice A) can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential drug interactions. Infusing each medication by gravity (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Flushing the NG tube with sterile water (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to administering medications through the tube.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being taught about medication management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should take your medication on an empty stomach.' When educating a client with hypothyroidism, it is essential to advise taking thyroid medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption and effectiveness. Taking the medication with food, especially high-fiber or with supplements like calcium, can interfere with absorption and reduce its efficacy. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow the recommendation of taking the medication on an empty stomach. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with a high-fiber meal (Choice A) or with a calcium supplement (Choice C) can hinder absorption, and taking it before bedtime (Choice D) does not optimize absorption compared to taking it on an empty stomach.

4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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