Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

2. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) states, 'I will shake the inhaler before each use.' Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before each use.
• B. I will use the inhaler immediately after meals.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will clean the mouthpiece with alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because shaking the inhaler before each use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, which is essential for effective administration. This action helps to disperse the medication evenly, enhancing its efficacy when inhaled. Proper mixing through shaking prevents inconsistent dosing and ensures that the client receives the correct amount of medication with each use.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.
• B. You should decrease your intake of foods high in calcium.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.' This statement should be included in the teaching because increasing intake of foods high in iron is essential for managing anemia. Iron is a key component for producing hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. By increasing iron-rich foods like leafy greens, red meat, and fortified cereals, the client can help improve their hemoglobin levels and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of foods high in calcium is not necessary for anemia management; avoiding foods that contain gluten is relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not anemia; and increasing intake of high-fat foods is not recommended for managing anemia.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

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