Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?

• A. Track oral temperature weekly
• B. Gardening is a good form of mild exercise
• C. Avoid crowded events
• D. Eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.

3. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is used to treat hypertension
• B. It can cause hair loss
• C. It may take several months to see results
• D. It is safe for use during pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the healthcare provider provide?

• A. Decrease caloric intake to reduce weight gain
• B. Increase dietary fiber to prevent constipation
• C. Rise slowly when sitting up
• D. Take this medication each morning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with doxazosin is to rise slowly when sitting up. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness upon sudden position changes. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the potential side effects or administration of doxazosin.

Similar Questions