a menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate in her daily routine to promote sleep the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate into her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage which of the following measures to promote sleep?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime. Alcohol and nicotine are stimulants that can disrupt sleep patterns, so avoiding them before bedtime can promote better sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Consuming a warm drink at bedtime may lead to frequent urination, disrupting sleep; taking an evening walk before bedtime may increase alertness rather than inducing sleep; and taking an afternoon nap can make it harder to fall asleep at night.

2. A client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgery. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to describe their feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties the client is experiencing. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings and not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice C may come across as dismissive and oversimplified. While providing information about the surgery (Choice D) is important, addressing the client's emotional state is the initial priority in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

5. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

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